MemberApril 24, 2021 at 9:36 am
[edit: oops we cross-posted. I will read yours above and see if anything else is needed]
Regarding your first option and question, Ken:
a. The two 430’s cover the same period. In that case, how could Abram’s “sojourn in Misrayim” have begun in Ur of the Chaldees?
I would think you are aware that Ex 12:40 has an alternative version in the LXX and SP (also supported by rabbinic sources).
(Exo 12:40-41 Brenton LXX) And the sojourning of the children of Israel, while they sojourned in the land of Egypt and the land of Chanaan, was four hundred and thirty years. (41) And it came to pass after the four hundred and thirty years, all the forces of the Lord came forth out of the land of Egypt by night.
The additional words “and in Chanaan”, as they appear in the Septuagint translation and the Samaritan Pentateuch (Ex. 12:40), at the very least represent to us the understanding of the scholars at the time, and this position is not necessarily excluded by the majority rendition of the verse. In regard to the Jewish scholars who produced the Septuagint in Alexandria in about 300 B.C., theirs would have to be one of the earliest learned ‘opinions’ available.
Regarding your second option and question:
b. The two 430’s cover different periods, offset by 20 years. In that case, how could the giving of the law 430 years after the promise have occurred 20 years before the end of the “sojourn in Misrayim”?
I am confused about the “20 years before the end of the ‘sojourn in Misrayim'”. I think my post immediately above this one addresses this issue, but I may be missing your meaning.