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Home Forums Evidence for Biblical miracles Are miracles still happening today? Reply To: Are miracles still happening today?

  • Francesco Gabellini

    February 8, 2021 at 11:44 am

    After answering the first question and considering that the miracles performed by God in the course of about 4,000 years of human history have been relatively few and many of them have been concentrated in two specific periods of history, now is the time to answer the second question.

    Toward what kind of people has God performed miracles in the course of known human history?

    Speaking of “miracles” or things that are beyond our understanding, we cannot help but mention two events that directly affected the lives of many people. They are described in chapters 6 and 11 of the book of Genesis and are the flood in the days of Noah and the confusion of tongues in the city later called Babel.

    However, apart from these two events just described, God begins to work miraculously towards a specific category of people. Beginning with Abraham and progressing along his lineage, God manifested himself in ways beyond our understanding with Jacob, with Joseph, and then with Moses and Joshua.

    Then, once the people of Israel had settled in Canaan (the promised land), God continued to work a few single miracles through different Judges and different Prophets.

    We can say with absolute certainty that of all the miracles made by God for Abraham’s descendants, the most extraordinary and still fascinating ones today (the PoE series of films is a demonstration of this) are those performed through Moses.

    And through Moses himself, God foretold to the people of <st1:country-region w:st=”on”><st1:place w:st=”on”>Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region> that another prophet like Moses would be sent to that people, as recorded in the scripture of Deuteronomy 18:18.

    Deuteronomy 18:18 (NIV) “I will raise up for them a prophet like you from among their fellow Israelites, and I will put my words in his mouth. He will tell them everything I command him.”

    As we know, in order to make the people of Israel believe in Moses, God gave Moses the power to perform “miracles” which he did first only before his people and then also before Egyptians.

    So it was logical to expect that the “prophet like you” mentioned in Deuteronomy 18:18 would have to show similar credentials to be heard by the people and thus perform miracles comparable to those of Moses.

    Jesus Christ proved that he was that “prophet like you” by giving abundant evidence that he had God’s backing in what he said and did. Jesus did not open the waters of the sea, he did not transform wooden sticks into snakes but he did miracles even more extraordinary than those of Moses, even going so far as to give life back to dead people, something that Moses never did.

    Then, God gave some apostles the opportunity to perform several miracles which are described in the book of Acts. These miracles helped many people understand that the newborn Christian congregation had God’s backing.

    After this brief analysis, what answer can we give to the question found at the beginning of this post?

    If we want to give a superficial answer, we could say that God has behaved in an extremely partial way because he has turned his attention and his power only towards a single people.

    Throughout human history, many peoples have suffered from oppression by other dominant peoples. Unfortunately, slavery was a practice that dates back to the beginning of human history and has come to be practiced even in times very close to us.

    God did not choose to help and free all the oppressed but only those who belonged to the people of <st1:country-region w:st=”on”><st1:place w:st=”on”>Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region>.

    On the other hand, however, we have a disturbing question that arises spontaneously. If God worked extraordinary miracles to free some 3 million Jews from the oppression of the Egyptian people, why didn’t he do the same to free some 6 million Jews from the oppression of the German people in the Nazi period?

    It is therefore evident that God’s apparent preference for the people of <st1:country-region w:st=”on”><st1:place w:st=”on”>Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region> was only temporary and was not due to some sort of partiality.

    In fact, the apostle Peter recognized about God what we read in the scripture of Acts 10: 34-35

    Acts 10:34-35 (NIV) “Then Peter began to speak: “I now realize how true it is that God does not show favoritism but accepts from every nation the one who fears him and does what is right.”

    Therefore God is not partial and does not show favoritism.

    At this point, however, another question spontaneously arises.

    If the reason why God performed so many miracles in favor of the people of Israel both in the time of Moses and in the time of Jesus was not partiality and wanting to favor only that people, why did God act that way?

    This logical reasoning leads us directly to our third question which I will try to answer in my next post, which is ” What appears to be God’s goal in performing his miracles?”